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| Fwd: Molar Pregnancy/Case: Man with Migraine, Aphasia, and Hemipares |
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From: NEJM Resident E-Bulletin < resebulletin@...> Date: April 15, 2009 6:06:40 PM EDT To: glennskow@...Subject: Molar Pregnancy/Case: Man with Migraine, Aphasia, and Hemiparesis/Valsartan and Atrial FibrillationReply-To: resebulletin@...
| THIS WEEK'S TEACHING TOPICS |  |  |  |  |  | |  |  |  |
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 TEACHING TOPIC
1. Molar Pregnancy CLINICAL PRACTICE, Molar Pregnancy, R.S. Berkowitz and D.P. Goldstein, Extract | Full Text | PDF | PPT Slide Set | Audio
A healthy 37-year-old woman presents at 10 weeks of pregnancy with vaginal bleeding. Physical examination shows that the uterine size is appropriate for gestational age. The serum human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level is 22,000 mIU per milliliter. Ultrasonography does not show an identifiable heartbeat. The patient undergoes evacuation of the uterus; pathological examination indicates a complete molar pregnancy. How should this case be managed?
Clinical Pearls
Complete Mole versus Missed Abortion Ultrasonographic findings that do not include the characteristics of a molar pregnancy are usually presumed to be a missed abortion. An elevated hCG level at the time of ultrasonographic examination may help to distinguish an early complete mole from a missed abortion. However, a definitive diagnosis requires that a pathologist perform microscopic examination of tissue removed during uterine evacuation.
Table 1. Chromosomal and Histopathological Features of Complete and Partial Moles.
hCG Testing after Molar Pregnancy After evacuation, serial hCG levels should be monitored in patients with either a complete or partial molar pregnancy in order to facilitate the early detection of persistent gestational trophoblastic neoplasia. To ensure that the patient has a complete, sustained remission, hCG tests are often performed weekly until levels have been undetectable (<5 mIU per milliliter) for 3 weeks, with subsequent monthly testing until levels have been undetectable for 6 months.
| Morning Report Questions | | Q: |  |  Molar pregnancy comprises two distinct entities: partial and complete moles. What is the difference between the two? | | A: |  |  Complete moles have no identifiable embryonic or fetal tissues. Complete moles usually have a 46,XX karyotype, and the molar chromosomes are entirely from the father. Most complete moles are homozygous and appear to arise from an anuclear (“empty”) ovum that has been fertilized by a haploid (23X) sperm, which then replicates its own chromosomes. Partial moles can have identifiable fetal or embryonic tissues. Partial moles usually have a triploid karyotype that develops after the fertilization of an apparently normal ovum by two spermatozoa. When fetuses with partial moles are identified, they can have the congenital anomalies associated with triploidy, such as syndactyly and cleft lip. Levels of hCG tend to be higher (greater than 100,000 mIU per milliliter before evacuation) in the complete moles as compared to the partial moles.
| | Q: |  |  Is there a risk for persistent neoplasia after a molar pregnancy? | | A: |  |  Yes. The criteria for the diagnosis of persistent neoplasia after molar pregnancy, as defined by the International Federation of Obstetrics and Gynecology, are serum hCG levels that do not return to normal range after evacuation, evidence of metastasis, and a pathological diagnosis of choriocarcinoma, any one of which establishes the diagnosis of persistent neoplasia. The incidence of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia after a complete molar pregnancy in the United States has been reported to be 18 to 29%. After a partial molar pregnancy the reported incidence ranges from 0 to 11%.
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 TEACHING TOPIC
2. Case: Man with Migraine, Aphasia, and Hemiparesis CASE RECORDS OF THE MASSACHUSETTS GENERAL HOSPITAL, Case 12-2009: A 46-Year-Old Man with Migraine, Aphasia, and Hemiparesis and Similarly Affected Family Members, S.D. Brass and Others, Extract | Full Text | PDF | PPT Slide Set
A 46-year-old man presented to the hospital with migraine headache and recurrent acute neurologic events over the past four years. Examination revealed cognitive changes, aphasia, and hemiparesis. His two brothers had been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Neuroimaging of the patient's brain revealed multifocal abnormalities in the basal ganglia and white matter. What is the differential diagnosis?
Clinical Pearls
Differential Diagnosis In addition to multiple sclerosis, the differential diagnosis in this patient with recurrent neurologic events includes small-vessel vasculitides, as well as other pathologic processes that could result in deep infarcts, such as hypercoagulable states, and inheritable or drug-induced small-vessel arteriopathies. Diseases that present with multifocal white-matter lesions include infectious diseases such as Lyme disease, HIV encephalitis, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, and neurosyphilis; metabolic conditions such as vitamin B12 deficiency; toxic leukoencephalopathy; and inflammatory and immunologic diseases such as Behçet's disease, antiphospholipid-antibody syndrome, and neurosarcoidosis.
Multiple Sclerosis Multiple sclerosis is a challenging diagnosis to make and is associated with a misdiagnosis rate of 5 to 10%. The diagnosis relies on the presence of disseminated lesions in the central nervous system without findings that actually explain the disease process. MRI of the brain and spine, cerebrospinal fluid examination, and tests of visual evoked potentials may also help confirm the diagnosis. The patient most likely does not have multiple sclerosis if there is a lack of optic-nerve involvement and sensory symptoms on examination, or if there is predominant gray-matter involvement and sparing of the corpus callosum on MRI. Normal results on testing of the visual evoked potentials, the absence of oligoclonal bands, and a normal IgG index on cerebrospinal fluid examination might also indicate other diseases that could mimic multiple sclerosis.
Table 1. Red Flags When Making a Diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis.
| Morning Report Question | | Q: |  |  What is homocystinuria and how might it manifest in the central nervous system? | | A: |  |  Homocystinuria is an autosomal recessive disease caused by mutations in one of four genes that are involved in methionine metabolism. The classic form is caused by mutations in the CBS gene, which encodes cystathionine β-synthase. Accelerated atherosclerosis, large-vessel and small-vessel ischemic infarcts, and extensive white-matter lesions may be seen.
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 TEACHING TOPIC
3. Valsartan and Atrial Fibrillation ORIGINAL ARTICLE, Valsartan for Prevention of Recurrent Atrial Fibrillation, The GISSI-AF Investigators, Abstract | Full Text | PDF | PPT Slide Set
EDITORIAL, Angiotensin-Receptor Blockers for Prevention of Atrial Fibrillation — A Matter of Timing or Target?, A.M. Gillis, Extract | Full Text | PDF
In a prospective, randomized trial, 1442 patients with a history of atrial fibrillation associated with cardiovascular disease, diabetes, or left atrial enlargement were assigned to receive either valsartan, an angiotensin II–receptor blocker, or placebo. At one year, there was no difference between the groups in the rate of either a first recurrence or multiple recurrences of atrial fibrillation.
“Valsartan and possibly other ARBs do not prevent the recurrence of atrial fibrillation in this patient population.” A.M. Gillis, Editorial, “Angiotensin-Receptor Blockers for Prevention of Atrial Fibrillation — A Matter of Timing or Target?”
Figure 1. Kaplan–Meier Curves for the Time to the First Recurrence of Atrial Fibrillation.
Clinical Pearl
Atrial Fibrillation Some studies have shown that the recurrence of atrial fibrillation after cardioversion may be partially related to a biologic phenomenon known as cardiac remodeling, in which the electrical, mechanical, and structural properties of atrial tissue and cardiac cells are progressively and irreversibly altered, creating a more favorable substrate for atrial fibrillation. The renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system plays a role in atrial remodeling. Previous studies have suggested that ACE inhibitors and ARBs may have a beneficial effect on either new-onset atrial fibrillation or recurrent atrial fibrillation.
| Morning Report Questions | | Q: |  |  What is the most common cardiac arrhythmia? | | A: |  |  Atrial fibrillation is the most common cardiac arrhythmia.
| | Q: |  |  What is the difference between primary and secondary prevention of atrial fibrillation? | | A: |  |  Primary prevention would be the prevention of new-onset atrial fibrillation, whereas secondary prevention would be the prevention of the recurrence of atrial fibrillation.
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